How do you reconcile the misquoting of the Old Testament in the New Testament cross-references between Romans and Isaiah? [Romans 11:26-27, Isaiah 59:21, Romans 9-11, Romans 9:6, Romans 9:27, Romans 11:1-5, John 17:24].
What is your understanding of the belief that though God once blinded Jewish eyes, He will open their eyes again in the end times? [Romans 9-11, Romans 11:25-26, Romans 11:5-7, Romans 11:16-25].
Can you give me a brief overview of "Dispensational" theology and how it relates to the Old & New Testaments? [Exodus 19:5, Galatians 3:28, Romans 11:26, Romans 9:27, Romans 11:5].
Can we conclude that the "mystery" in Romans 11 is there there will no longer be a "partial hardening" of the Jews as they become believers? [Romans 11:25-26, Romans 9:27, Romans 11:16-24, Romans 9-11, Galatians 6:16].
Caller disagrees with Steve's view of Israel not having special standing before God, especiallly noted in Revelation and Ezekiel. [Romans 10-11, Romans 11:1-5, Hosea 1, Ezekiel 37, Romans 11:26, Joel 2:28-32].
Could the "fullness of the Gentiles" simply be referring to the inclusion of the Gentiles in the benefits of salvation, thus fulflling prophecy? [Romans 11:25-26, Luke 21:24, Jeremiah 11:16, Romans 11:7, Amos 9].
How do you explain that "all Israel will be saved"? Are all Jews saved? [Romans 11:25-26, Romans 9-11, Hosea 1:9, Isaiah 10:22, Jeremiah 23:5, Joel 2:28-32, Psalm 50:5, Psalm 50:16, Jeremiah 11:16].
Could you help me make sense of the verse about "in this way, all Israel will be saved"? [Romans 9-11, 1 Corinthians 12-14, Romans 9:6, Romans 11:25-29, Hosea 1:9, Galatians 6:16, Jeremiah 11:16].
How do you interpret Israel in this text? Dispensationalists say there is a distinction between the church & Israel, so can it be interpreted that way? [Romans 11:26]
