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If the word "virgin" in Hebrew means "young woman" does the fact that the apostles used the Greek Septuagint (where the word is "parthenos," which means "virgin") tend to nullify the argument of liberal scholars that Mary may not have been a virgin? [Matthew 1:23, Isaiah 7:14].

Doesn't the original prophetic "type" have to make sense to those immediately involved? [Isaiah 7:14, Matthew 1:23, Matthew 8:8 Luke 24:45, 1 Peter 1:10-12, 2 Corinthians 3:14, Romans 16:25-26, 1 Corinthians 2:8-11, Ephesians 3:1-6, Colossians 1:26, Hosea 11:1, Matthew 2:15].

Would you comment on "Double Fulfillment Prophecy" and "Mountaintop Prophecy"? [Isaiah 7:14, Isaiah 8:1-10, Matthew 1:23, 2 Samuel 7:12-14, Joel 2:28-32].

Could you help me with how one considers context in studying scripture, and understanding how one might know that something is prophecy? [Matthew 1:23, Isaiah 7:14-16, Isaiah 8, 2 Samuel 7:12, Hebrews 1:5].

What ever happened to the son born to Isaiah? [Isaiah 7:14, Isaiah 8, Matthew 1:23, Isaiah 37:22, Revelation 12].

Do the following verses necessitate the translation of "a virgin", rather than just a "young virgin"? [Isaiah 7:14, 8, Matthew 1:23].

Why is the word for "virgin", sometimes translated as, "young woman"? [Isaiah 7:14, Matthew 1:23].

I was doing some research on Christ's birth, & there's Scripture that points out fulfillment of OT Scripture such as the Virgin birth, being called out of Egypt, but it also talks about Him being called a Nazarene, but there's no OT prophet predicting Him being a Nazarene. [Matthew 1:22-23, 2:15]

How come God is never called, Immanuel? [Isiah 7:14, Matthew 1:23]

Who is "they" in Matthew 1:23? [Matthew 1:23, Isaiah 7:14, Isaiah 9:6, Jeremiah 23:5-6].