Wouldn't David having put on a linen ephod (priestly garments) be considered offensive? Is it because he is called a prophet? [Psalm 40:6-8, Psalm 51:16, Psalm 110:4, Hebrews 10:5-7, Hebrews 5:10, Matthew 12:3-4, 2 Samuel 6:14].
How is it that David is speaking to God in Psalms, but the New Testament indictes it is Jesus talking in Hebrews 10? [Hebrews 10:5-7, Psalm 40:6-8, Luke 24:45, 2 Corinthians 3:15, I Corinthians 2:14, I Corinthians 2:9, Psalm 119:11, Psalm 2:7].
Could you expound on the way Jesus taught ritual law to his disciples, but you indicate that ritual law no longer applies to us. [Matthew 8, Mark 7, Hebrews 10:1-18].
Can you resolve the very unrelated wording in Hebrews and Psalm 40, where the words used for "opening an ear" are to equate to "body prepared", seemingly meant to come from the same text? How can that be? [Hebrews 10:5, Psalm 40:2].
It says that the Blood of Goats & Bulls never really justified the people of the OT, so how were they justified? Still by faith also? [Hebrews 9:13-10:18, Romans 4, 1 Peter 3:18-20, Romans 3:25]
