Question details
Why does Jesus use two different Greek words (pornea & moichaÅ) when speaking of marriage in Matthew 5? Why doesn't he use the same two words in Mark and Luke? [I Corinthians 5:1, Jude 7, Matthew 5:32].
Why does Jesus use two different Greek words (pornea & moichaÅ) when speaking of marriage in Matthew 5? Why doesn't he use the same two words in Mark and Luke? [I Corinthians 5:1, Jude 7, Matthew 5:32].